In standard form \(y^{\prime }-p\left ( x\right ) y=q\left ( x\right ) \). So \(p=\frac {-1}{x},q=0\). Domain of \(p\) is \(x\neq 0\). Domain of \(q\) is all \(x\). Since IC includes \(x=0\) then theory says nothing about existence and uniqueness. We have to solve the ode to find out. Solving gives
Applying I.C. gives
Which is true for any \(c\). Hence solution exist which is \(y=cx\) for any \(c\). Hence solution is not unique. There are \(\infty \) number of solutions.